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NEW QUESTION 39
A manager identifies active privileged accounts belonging to staff who have left the organization. Which of the following is the threat actor In this scenario?
- A. Terminated staff
- B. Hacktivists
- C. Deleted log data
- D. Unauthorized access
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 40
Which of the following methods of encryption has been proven to be almost unbreakable when correctly used?
- A. 3-DES
- B. one-time pad
- C. Oakley
- D. certificate
- E. None of the choices.
- F. key pair
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: It's possible to protect messages in transit by means of cryptography. One method of encryption - the one-time pad --has been proven to be unbreakable when correctly used. This method uses a matching pair of key- codes, securely distributed, which are used once-and-only-once to encode and decode a single message. Note that this method is difficult to use securely, and is highly inconvenient as well.
NEW QUESTION 41
.Of the three major types of off-site processing facilities, what type is often an acceptable solution for preparing for recovery of noncritical systems and data?
- A. Cold site
- B. Alternate site
- C. Warm site
- D. Hot site
Answer: A
Explanation:
A cold site is often an acceptable solution for preparing for recovery of noncritical systems and datA .
NEW QUESTION 42
An IS auditor performing an application maintenance audit would review the log of program changes for
the:
- A. authorization of program changes.
- B. creation date of a current source program.
- C. number of program changes actually made.
- D. creation date of a current object module.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The manual log will most likely contain information on authorized changes to a program. Deliberate,
unauthorized changes will not be documented by the responsible party. An automated log, found usually in
library management products, and not a changelog would most likely contain date information for the
source and executable modules.
NEW QUESTION 43
The role of the certificate authority (CA) as a third party is to:
- A. act as a trusted intermediary between two communication partners.
- B. host a repository of certificates with the corresponding public and secret keys issued by that CA.
- C. confirm the identity of the entity owning a certificate issued by that CA.
- D. provide secured communication and networking services based on certificates.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The primary activity of a CA is to issue certificates. The primary role of the CA is to check the identity of the entity owning a certificate and to confirm the integrity of any certificate it issued. Providing a communication infrastructure is not a CA activity. The secret keys belonging to the certificates would not be archived at the CA. The CA can contribute to authenticating the communicating partners to each other, but the CA is not involved in the communication stream itself.
NEW QUESTION 44
Which of the following methods would BEST ensure that IT strategy is in line with business strategy?
- A. Break-even analysis
- B. Business impact analysis (B!A)
- C. Critical path analysis
- D. Value analysis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 45
Which of the following is protocol data unit (PDU) of transport layer in TCP/IP model?
- A. Segment
- B. Packet
- C. Data
- D. Frame
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
For your exam you should know below information about TCP/IP model:
Network models
Layer 4. Application Layer
Application layer is the top most layer of four layer TCP/IP model. Application layer is present on the top of the Transport layer. Application layer defines TCP/IP application protocols and how host programs interface with Transport layer services to use the network.
Application layer includes all the higher-level protocols like DNS (Domain Naming System), HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), Telnet, SSH, FTP (File Transfer Protocol), TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol), SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) , DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), X Windows, RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) etc.
Layer 3. Transport Layer
Transport Layer is the third layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The position of the Transport layer is between Application layer and Internet layer. The purpose of Transport layer is to permit devices on the source and destination hosts to carry on a conversation. Transport layer defines the level of service and status of the connection used when transporting data.
The main protocols included at Transport layer are TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol).
Layer 2. Internet Layer
Internet Layer is the second layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The position of Internet layer is between Network Access Layer and Transport layer. Internet layer pack data into data packets known as IP datagram's, which contain source and destination address (logical address or IP address) information that is used to forward the datagram's between hosts and across networks. The Internet layer is also responsible for routing of IP datagram's.
Packet switching network depends upon a connectionless internetwork layer. This layer is known as Internet layer. Its job is to allow hosts to insert packets into any network and have them to deliver independently to the destination. At the destination side data packets may appear in a different order than they were sent. It is the job of the higher layers to rearrange them in order to deliver them to proper network applications operating at the Application layer.
The main protocols included at Internet layer are IP (Internet Protocol), ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol), ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) and IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol).
Layer 1. Network Access Layer
Network Access Layer is the first layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. Network Access Layer defines details of how data is physically sent through the network, including how bits are electrically or optically signaled by hardware devices that interface directly with a network medium, such as coaxial cable, optical fiber, or twisted pair copper wire.
The protocols included in Network Access Layer are Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay etc.
The most popular LAN architecture among those listed above is Ethernet. Ethernet uses an Access Method called CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection) to access the media, when Ethernet operates in a shared media. An Access Method determines how a host will place data on the medium.
IN CSMA/CD Access Method, every host has equal access to the medium and can place data on the wire when the wire is free from network traffic. When a host wants to place data on the wire, it will check the wire to find whether another host is already using the medium. If there is traffic already in the medium, the host will wait and if there is no traffic, it will place the data in the medium. But, if two systems place data on the medium at the same instance, they will collide with each other, destroying the data. If the data is destroyed during transmission, the data will need to be retransmitted. After collision, each host will wait for a small interval of time and again the data will be retransmitted.
Protocol Data Unit (PDU) :
Protocol Data Unit - PDU
The following answers are incorrect:
Data - Application layer PDU
Packet - Network interface layer PDU
Frame/bit - LAN or WAN interface layer PDU
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 page number 272
NEW QUESTION 46
Default permit is only a good approach in an environment where:
- A. users are trained.
- B. security threats are serious and severe.
- C. None of the choices.
- D. security threats are non-negligible.
- E. security threats are non-existent or negligible.
Answer: E
Explanation:
"Everything not explicitly permitted is forbidden (default deny) improves security at a cost in functionality. This is a good approach if you have lots of security threats. On the other hand., ""Everything not explicitly forbidden is permitted"" (default permit) allows greater functionality by sacrificing security. This is only a good approach in an environment where security threats are non- existent or negligible."
NEW QUESTION 47
Which of the following would an IS auditor consider a weakness when performing an audit of an organization that uses a public key infrastructure with digital certificates for its business-to-consumer transactions via the internet?
- A. Customers can make their transactions from any computer or mobile device.
- B. The organization is the owner of the certificate authority.
- C. Customers are widely dispersed geographically, but the certificate authorities are not.
- D. The certificate authority has several data processing subcenters to administer certificates.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the certificate authority belongs to the same organization, this would generate a conflict of interest. That is, if a customer wanted to repudiate a transaction, they could allege that because of the shared interests, an unlawful agreement exists between the parties generating the certificates, if a customer wanted to repudiate a transaction, they could argue that there exists a bribery between the parties to generate the certificates, as shared interests exist. The other options are not weaknesses.
NEW QUESTION 48
Which of the following is a passive attack to a network?
- A. Masquerading
- B. Denial of service
- C. Message modification
- D. Traffic analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
The intruder determines the nature of the flow of traffic (traffic analysis) between defined hosts and is able to guess the type of communication taking place. Message modification involves the capturing of a message and making unauthorized changes or deletions, changing the sequence or delaying transmission of captured messages. Masquerading is an active attack in which the intruder presents an identity other than the original identity. Denial of service occurs when a computer connected to thelnternet is flooded with data and/or requests that must be processed.
NEW QUESTION 49
An IS auditor is reviewing IT policies and found that most policies have not been reviewed in over 3 years. The MOST significant risk is that the policies do not reflect.
- A. Current industry best practices
- B. The vision of the CEO
- C. The mission of the organization
- D. Current legal requirements
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 50
What can be used to gather evidence of network attacks?
- A. Antivirus programs
- B. Intrusion-detection systems (IDS)
- C. Syslog reporting
- D. Access control lists (ACL)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Intrusion-detection systems (IDS) are used to gather evidence of network attacks.
NEW QUESTION 51
Following best practices, formal plans for implementation of new information systems are developed during the:
- A. development phase.
- B. testing phase.
- C. design phase.
- D. deployment phase.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Planning for implementation should begin well in advance of the actual implementation date. A formal implementation plan should be constructed in the design phase and revised as the development progresses.
NEW QUESTION 52
A penetration test performed as part of evaluating network security:
- A. provides assurance that all vulnerabilities are discovered.
- B. should be performed without warning the organization's management.
- C. would not damage the information assets when performed at network perimeters.
- D. exploits the existing vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Penetration tests are an effective method of identifying real-time risks to an information processing environment. They attempt to break into a live site in order to gain unauthorized access to a system. They do have the potential for damaging information assets or misusing information because they mimic an experienced hacker attacking a live system. On the other hand, penetration tests do not provide assurance that all vulnerabilities are discovered because they are based on a limited number of procedures.
Management should provide consent for the test to avoid false alarms to IT personnel or to law enforcement bodies.
NEW QUESTION 53
Which of the following should the IS auditor use to BEST determine whether a project has met its business objectives?
- A. Earned-value analysis
- B. Completed project plan
- C. Benefits realization document
- D. Issues log with resolutions
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 54
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How much CISA Exam Cost
- The final Registration fee for the CISA is $465 USD for members and $595 for Non-Members.
- The early Registration fee for the CISA exam is $415 for Members and $545 for Non-Members.
Protection of Information Assets
This objective has the highest percentage in the exam content, which means that you need to pay more attention to its components. The questions from this topic will measure your knowledge of the following:
- Security Event Management – security awareness programs and training; information system attack techniques; security testing tools and methods; security monitoring tools and methods; evidence collection and forensic; incident response management.
- Information asset security and control – privacy principles; data classification; virtual environments; information assets security frameworks, guidelines, and standards; identity & access management; public key infrastructure; data encryption & encryption-related methods; network & endpoint security; physical access & environmental controls;
You should also be ready that there will be about 39 supporting tasks that include various processes connected to the exam concepts. Therefore, it is important to master all the objectives.
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