[UPDATED 2024] N10-008 dumps Free Test Engine Verified By Certified Experts [Q234-Q254]

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[UPDATED 2024] N10-008 dumps Free Test Engine Verified By Certified Experts

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CompTIA N10-008 (CompTIA Network+ Certification) Certification Exam is a globally recognized certification exam that is designed to validate the knowledge and skills of networking professionals. N10-008 exam is designed for professionals who have experience in network administration, support, and troubleshooting. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification is vendor-neutral and covers a wide range of networking technologies, protocols, and concepts.

 

NEW QUESTION # 234
A network administrator needs to query the NSs for a remote application. Which of the following commands would BEST help the administrator accomplish this task?

  • A. arp
  • B. hostname
  • C. dig
  • D. show interface

Answer: C

Explanation:
The dig command is used to query the NSs for a remote application. It is a command-line tool that is commonly used to troubleshoot DNS issues. When used with specific options, dig can be used to obtain information about domain names, IP addresses, and DNS records. Reference: Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Network Infrastructure


NEW QUESTION # 235
Which of the following would need to be configured to ensure a device with a specific MAC address is always assigned the same IP address from DHCP?

  • A. Reservation
  • B. Dynamic assignment
  • C. Exclusion
  • D. Scope options
  • E. Static assignment

Answer: A

Explanation:
A reservation should be configured to ensure a device with a specific MAC address is always assigned the same IP address from DHCP. A reservation is a feature of DHCP that allows an administrator to assign a fixed IP address to a device based on its MAC address. This way, the device will always receive the same IP address from the DHCP server, even if it is powered off or disconnected from the network for a long time. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/troubleshoot/configure-dhcp-reservations


NEW QUESTION # 236
A systems administrator is configuring a firewall using NAT with PAT. Which of the following would be BEST suited for the LAN interface?

  • A. 172.18.0.0/10
  • B. 172.15.0.0/18
  • C. 172.32.0.0/14
  • D. 172.28.0.0/8
  • E. 172.28.0.0/8

Answer: E

Explanation:
Network address translation (NAT) and Port address translation (PAT) are often used to translate between global and private ip addresses. Private address for Class B is 172.16.0.0 to
172.31.255.255. Only 172.23.0.0/16 fit the range.


NEW QUESTION # 237
A Chief Executive Officer and a network administrator came to an agreement With a vendor to purchase new equipment for the data center A document was drafted so all parties would be Informed about the scope of the project before It started. Which of the following terms BEST describes the document used?

  • A. Non-disclosure agreement
  • B. Contract
  • C. Project charter
  • D. Memorandum of understanding

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 238
A technician is investigating why a PC cannot reach a file server with the IP address 192.168.8.129. Given the following TCP/IP network configuration:

Which of the following configurations on the PC is incorrect?

  • A. IPv4 address
  • B. Subnet mask
  • C. Default gateway
  • D. IPv6 address

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The default gateway is the IP address of the router that connects the PC to other networks. The default gateway should be on the same subnet as the PC's IPv4 address. However, in this case, the default gateway is
192.168.9.1, which is on a different subnet than the PC's IPv4 address of 192.168.8.15. Therefore, the default gateway configuration on the PC is incorrect and prevents the PC from reaching the file server on another subnet.


NEW QUESTION # 239
The following configuration is applied to a DHCP server connected to a VPN concentrator:
There are 300 non-concurrent sales representatives who log in for one hour a day to upload reports, and 252 of these representatives are able to connect to the VPN without any Issues. The remaining sales representatives cannot connect to the VPN over the course of the day. Which of the following can be done to resolve the issue without utilizing additional resources?

  • A. Install a new VPN concentrator
  • B. Configure a new router
  • C. Decrease the lease duration
  • D. Reboot the DHCP server

Answer: C

Explanation:
Decreasing the lease duration on the DHCP server will cause clients to renew their IP address leases more frequently, freeing up IP addresses for other clients to use. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: IP Addressing.


NEW QUESTION # 240
A technician is investigating a misconfiguration on a Layer 3 switch. When the technician logs in and runs a command, the following data is shown:
Which of the following commands generated this output?

  • A. show interface
  • B. tcpdump
  • C. show config
  • D. show route
  • E. netstat -s

Answer: A

Explanation:
The output shown in the image is from the show interface command, which displays information about the status and configuration of a network interface on a switch or router. The output includes the interface name, description, MAC address, IP address, speed, duplex mode, status, and statistics. The show route command displays the routing table of the device. The show config command displays the current configuration of the device. The tcpdump command captures and analyzes network traffic. The netstat -s command displays statistics for each protocol.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to troubleshoot connectivity issues.


NEW QUESTION # 241
Which of the following technologies are certificates most commonly associated with?

  • A. VLAN tagging
  • B. PKI
  • C. LDAP
  • D. MFA

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system of processes, technologies, and policies that allows you to encrypt and sign data using digital certificates1. Digital certificates are issued by Certificate Authorities (CAs) and authenticate the identity of users, devices, or services that communicate online12. Digital certificates also provide the means to encrypt and decrypt messages between sender and receiver using public and private keys2


NEW QUESTION # 242
Given the following information:

Which of the following command-line tools would generate this output?

  • A. arp
  • B. netstat
  • C. dig
  • D. tracert

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Tracert is a command-line tool that traces the route of a packet from a source to a destination and displays the number of hops and the round-trip time for each hop. The output shown in the question is an example of a tracert output, which shows five hops with their IP addresses and hostnames (if available) and three latency measurements for each hop in milliseconds. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://www.lumen.com/help/en-us/network/traceroute/understanding-the-traceroute-output.html


NEW QUESTION # 243
A new student is given credentials to log on to the campus Wi-Fi. The student stores the password in a laptop and is able to connect; however, the student is not able to connect with a phone when only a short distance from the laptop. Given the following information:

Which of the following is MOST likely causing this connection failure?

  • A. Incorrect passphrase
  • B. Antenna cable attenuation/signal loss
  • C. Transmission speed
  • D. Channel overlap

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 244
Which of the following is an example of on-demand scalable hardware that is typically housed in the vendor's data center?

  • A. PaaS
  • B. DaaS
  • C. IaaS
  • D. SaaS

Answer: C

Explanation:
* IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a cloud computing model that provides on-demand scalable hardware resources, such as servers, storage, network, and virtualization, that are typically housed in the vendor's data center12.
* IaaS allows customers to pay only for the resources they use, and to scale up or down as needed, without having to invest in or maintain their own physical infrastructure12.
* IaaS is different from other cloud computing models, such as DaaS (Desktop as a Service), PaaS (Platform as a Service), and SaaS (Software as a Service), which provide different levels of abstraction and functionality12.
* DaaS delivers virtual desktops to users over the internet, allowing them to access their applications and data from any device3.
* PaaS provides a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications, without having to manage the underlying infrastructure or software.
* SaaS delivers software applications over the internet, without requiring installation or maintenance on the user's device. References:
* [CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 8: Cloud Computing, Section:
Cloud Computing Models
* [Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Course Notes], Page 58: Cloud Computing Models
* [CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 8: Cloud Computing, Section:
Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
* [CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 8: Cloud Computing, Section:
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
* [CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 8: Cloud Computing, Section:
Software as a Service (SaaS)
* IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a cloud computing model that provides on-demand scalable hardware resources, such as servers, storage, network, and virtualization, that are typically housed in the vendor's data center12.
* IaaS allows customers to pay only for the resources they use, and to scale up or down as needed, without having to invest in or maintain their own physical infrastructure12.
* IaaS is different from other cloud computing models, such as DaaS (Desktop as a Service), PaaS (Platform as a Service), and SaaS (Software as a Service), which provide different levels of abstraction and functionality12.
* DaaS delivers virtual desktops to users over the internet, allowing them to access their applications and data from any device3.
* PaaS provides a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications, without having to manage
* the underlying infrastructure or software.
* SaaS delivers software applications over the internet, without requiring installation or maintenance on the user's device. References:
* [CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 8: Cloud Computing, Section:
Cloud Computing Models
* [Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Course Notes], Page 58: Cloud Computing Models
* [CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 8: Cloud Computing, Section:
Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
* [CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 8: Cloud Computing, Section:
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
* [CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 8: Cloud Computing, Section:
Software as a Service (SaaS)


NEW QUESTION # 245
A network technician needs to correlate security events to analyze a suspected intrusion. Which of the following should the technician use?

  • A. Vulnerability scanning
  • B. SIEM
  • C. Log review
  • D. SNMP

Answer: B

Explanation:
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a tool that collects, analyzes, and correlates data from various network devices and sources to provide alerts and reports on security incidents and events. A network technician can use SIEM to correlate security events to analyze a suspected intrusion, as SIEM can help identify the source, target, method, and impact of an attack, as well as provide recommendations for remediation. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-siem


NEW QUESTION # 246
A trusted vendor emailed a security advisory to an engineer. The advisory listed publicly disclosed security issues and resolutions for the vendor's installed network devices. Which of the following describes this security concept?

  • A. SSO
  • B. Zero day
  • C. Exploits
  • D. CVE

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 247
Users are reporting intermittent Wi-Fi connectivity in specific parts of a building. Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST when troubleshooting this issue? (Select TWO).

  • A. Captive portal
  • B. EIRP
  • C. Site survey
  • D. AP association time
  • E. AP placement
  • F. SSID assignment

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
This is a coverage issue. WAP placement and power need to be checked. Site survey should be done NEXT because it takes a while.


NEW QUESTION # 248
Which of the following redundant devices creates broadcast storms when connected together on a high-availability network?

  • A. Routers
  • B. Switches
  • C. Servers
  • D. Access points

Answer: B

Explanation:
Switches are devices that forward data based on MAC addresses. They create separate collision domains for each port, which reduces the chance of collisions on the network. However, if multiple switches are connected together without proper configuration, they can create broadcast storms, which are situations where broadcast frames are endlessly forwarded between switches, consuming network bandwidth and resources. Broadcast storms can be prevented by using protocols such as Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), which eliminates loops in the network topology. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 67; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 2-14.


NEW QUESTION # 249
Which of the following protocols uses Dijkstra's algorithm to calculate the LOWEST cost between routers?

  • A. EIGRP
  • B. OSPF
  • C. RIP
  • D. BGP

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
OSPF stands for Open Shortest Path First and is a link-state routing protocol that uses Dijkstra's algorithm to calculate the lowest cost between routers. OSPF assigns a cost value to each link based on factors such as bandwidth, delay, or reliability, and builds a map of the network topology. OSPF then uses Dijkstra's algorithm to find the shortest path from each router to every other router in the network1. RIP stands for Routing Information Protocol and is a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as the metric to find the best path. BGP stands for Border Gateway Protocol and is a path-vector routing protocol that uses attributes such as AS path, local preference, or origin to select the best route. EIGRP stands for Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol and is a hybrid routing protocol that uses a composite metric based on bandwidth, delay, load, and reliability.
References: 1 Dijkstra's algorithm - Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dijkstra%27s_algorithm)


NEW QUESTION # 250
A technician is troubleshooting a wireless connectivity issue in a small office located in a high-rise building.
Several APs are mounted in this office. The users report that the network connections frequently disconnect and reconnect throughout the day. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

  • A. Channel overlap is occurring
  • B. The RSSI is misreported
  • C. EIRP needs to be boosted
  • D. The AP association time is set too low

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Channel overlap is a common cause of wireless connectivity issues, especially in high-density environments where multiple APs are operating on the same or adjacent frequencies. Channel overlap can cause interference, signal degradation, and performance loss for wireless devices. The AP association time, EIRP, and RSSI are not likely to cause frequent disconnects and reconnects for wireless users.


NEW QUESTION # 251
At which of the following OSI model layers would a technician find an IP header?

  • A. Layer 1
  • B. Layer 2
  • C. Layer 3
  • D. Layer 4

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 252
Which of the following is the IEEE link cost for a Fast Ethernet interface in STP calculations?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
The IEEE standard for link cost for a Fast Ethernet interface is 100, and for a Gigabit Ethernet interface is 19.
These values are based on the bandwidth of the interface, with lower values indicating a higher-bandwidth interface.


NEW QUESTION # 253
A hacker used a packet sniffer on the network to capture the hardware address of the server. Which of the following types of attacks can the hacker perform now?

  • A. Piggybacking
  • B. Evil twin
  • C. MAC spoofing
  • D. VLAN hopping

Answer: C

Explanation:
MAC spoofing is a technique that allows a hacker to change the media access control (MAC) address of their network interface card (NIC) to impersonate another device on the network. By capturing the hardware address of the server, the hacker can spoof their MAC address to match the server's and bypass any MAC-based security measures, such as MAC filtering or MAC authentication. MAC spoofing can also be used to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, where the hacker intercepts and alters the traffic between two devices on the network. Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Chapter 7, Section 7.3


NEW QUESTION # 254
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