Prepare 220-1101 Question Answers - 220-1101 Exam Dumps
Real CompTIA 220-1101 Exam Questions [Updated 2024]
CompTIA 220-1101 exam is divided into different sections that cover various topics, including mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and troubleshooting. 220-1101 exam consists of 90 multiple-choice questions that need to be completed within 90 minutes. To pass the exam, candidates need to achieve a score of at least 675 out of 900. 220-1101 exam is available in multiple languages, including English, Japanese, German, and Spanish, among others. Passing 220-1101 exam demonstrates that the candidate has a solid foundation in computer technology and is ready to pursue a career in the IT industry.
NEW QUESTION # 223
Which of the following is the best reason to set up a virtual sandbox?
- A. To test an application in Windows and Linux concurrently
- B. To run a test application that communicates with the test environment
- C. To analyze the effects of malware in a safe manner
- D. To host an application that multiple remote users can access
Answer: C
Explanation:
A virtual sandbox is an isolated environment that mimics the characteristics of a real system, but does not affect or interact with it1. A virtual sandbox can be used to run potentially unsafe or malicious code and observe its behavior without risking harm to the host machine or network2. This is useful for cybersecurity researchers who want to test and analyze malware samples, such as viruses, worms, ransomware, etc., and understand how they work and how to prevent or mitigate them3.
NEW QUESTION # 224
Which of the following is the primary function of a DNS service?
- A. To authenticate users to remote servers
- B. To translate domain names to IP addresses
- C. To serve files over the network
- D. To dynamically assign network addresses to hosts
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 225
A technician is working on a help desk ticket for a user who wants the filament replaced in a 3-D printer.
Which of the following should the technician do to remove the old filament and load the new one?
- A. Withdraw the filament and remove the spool.
- B. Preheat the nozzle to melting temperature.
- C. Cut a sharp angle on the end of the strand.
- D. Push the filament along until resistance is felt.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A technician is working on a help desk ticket for a user who wants the filament replaced in a 3-D printer. To remove the old filament and load the new one, the technician should preheat the nozzle to melting temperature.
After the nozzle is heated, the technician should withdraw the filament and remove the spool. Then, cut a sharp angle on the end of the new strand, and push it along until resistance is felt.
NEW QUESTION # 226
A user is unable to access the internet on a PC. A technician examines the PC and runs the following commands:
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting process does this series of commands represent?
- A. Verify full system functionality.
- B. Identify the problem.
- C. Establish a plan of action.
- D. Establish a theory.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 227
Using the output below:
Which of the following is the default gateway?
- A. 172.25.1.39
- B. 172.25.1.4
- C. 255.255.255.0
- D. 172.25.1.252
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The default gateway is the IP address of the router or device that connects a network to another network or the internet. In the output below, the default gateway is 172.25.1.252, as shown in the line "Default Gateway . . . .
. . . . . : 172.25.1.252". The other IP addresses are not default gateways, but either local IP addresses (172.25.1.39 and 172.25.1.4) or subnet masks (255.255.255.0).
NEW QUESTION # 228
A department sends in a ticket to report a printer is not working. The responding technician sees paper stuck to the fuser, which is much hotter than normal. The (user was just installed a few weeks ago. as indicated by the service history. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A. Replace the paper with thicker paper stock.
- B. Disable the printer for repairs.
- C. Install a printer roller kit.
- D. Remove the paper and let the fuser cool down.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 229
Upon booting a workstation, a technician hears a distinct clicking sound after power is applied to the motherboard. Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause?
- A. HDD
- B. S.M.A.R.T
- C. SSD
- D. RAID
Answer: A
Explanation:
The clicking sound is the sound of a damaged disk in the HDD
A clicking sound from a hard disk drive typically indicates a mechanical failure, such as the read/write head hitting a physical obstruction or a problem with the disk motor. This can cause the drive to fail to initialize or not be recognized by the system during booting.
NEW QUESTION # 230
An end user reports that the time and date on a desktop resets after shutdown, and subsequently, the device reboots. The next day, the desktop does not load the OS and is stuck at a black screen with the following message:
Which of the following would be the BEST action to take next?
- A. Restore the BIOS to factory default settings.
- B. Reseat the motherboard power connections.
- C. Change the motherboard.
- D. Replace the CMOS battery.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 231
A natural disaster occurred, and the storage system for the development team is unrecoverable. The technician is preparing replacement storage arrays that include a hypervisor with the capacity to support several virtual machines. Two separate bays are available, and both should be utilized.
Requirements for the primary array include the following:
* No need to be scalable
* Very fast on reads
* Fault tolerance of one drive
* Ability to function with only one drive
* Easily recoverable data
* High redundancy
* Minimum number of drives
Requirements for the secondary array include the following:
* Fault tolerance of one drive
* Total space of 600G3
* Best write performance
* Minimum number of drives
Instructions:
Drag and Drop the appropriate Hard Drives. Then Open each array to complete the configuration.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Primary Array:
Drag and drop two 120 GB SSD hard drives to the primary array bay.
Open the primary array and select RAID 1 as the RAID level. RAID 1 provides fault tolerance of one drive, ability to function with only one drive, easily recoverable data, high redundancy, and very fast on reads. It also does not need to be scalable and uses the minimum number of drives (two) for RAID 1.
Confirm the configuration and close the primary array.
Secondary Array:
Drag and drop two 300 GB SSD hard drives to the secondary array bay.
Open the secondary array and select RAID 0 as the RAID level. RAID 0 provides the best write performance and uses the minimum number of drives (two) for RAID 0. It also provides a total space of
600 GB (300 GB x 2), which meets the requirement.
Confirm the configuration and close the secondary array.
You have completed the configuration of the storage arrays.
NEW QUESTION # 232
A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables to connect it. Which of the following will the technician be installing?
- A. eSATA
- B. M.2
- C. SCSI
- D. Thunderbolt
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
M.2 is a form factor for solid-state drives (SSDs) that enables direct attachment to the motherboard without the need for cables. Thunderbolt is a high-speed interface that supports data transfer, video output, and charging.
eSATA is an external interface for connecting SATA devices. SCSI is an older interface standard for connecting hard drives, printers, and other peripherals.
Installing a hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables is usually done with an M.2 slot.
References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 5
NEW QUESTION # 233
The output from print jobs a user submitted to a laser printer is missing the color yellow. The user has already attempted a cleaning cycle. Which of the following parts most likely needs to be replaced?
- A. Resin
- B. Imaging drum
- C. Ink cartridge
- D. Toner tank
- E. Fuser
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An imaging drum is a component of a laser printer that transfers the toner to the paper. It is sensitive to light and can wear out over time, resulting in poor print quality or missing colors. If the cleaning cycle does not resolve the issue, the imaging drum may need to be replaced1.
A fuser is a component of a laser printer that heats and melts the toner onto the paper. It does not affect the color output of the printer, but it can cause paper jams, smudges, or wrinkles if it is defective2.
An ink cartridge is a component of an inkjet printer, not a laser printer. A laser printer uses toner, which is a dry powder, instead of ink, which is a liquid. An ink cartridge would not be compatible with a laser printer3.
A toner tank is a container that holds the toner for a laser printer. It can be either integrated with the imaging drum or separate from it. If the toner tank is empty or low, the printer will display a warning message and the print quality will deteriorate. However, if only one color is missing, the problem is more likely with the imaging drum than the toner tank4.
Resin is a material that is used in some types of 3D printers, not laser printers. Resin printers use a liquid resin that is cured by a light source to create solid objects. Resin has nothing to do with laser printing5.
NEW QUESTION # 234
In a SOHO environment, a user wants to make sensitive, scanned documents available to other users on the domain. The logs need to indicate who accessed the documents and at what time they were accessed. Which of the following settings should a technician set up on the MFP device?
- A. ADF tray
- B. SMB share
- C. PCL
- D. Scan to email
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is D. SMB share.
SMB stands for Server Message Block, which is a network protocol that allows file and printer sharing among different devices on a local area network (LAN). An SMB share is a folder or drive that is shared using the SMB protocol and can be accessed by authorized users on the network. An MFP device is a multifunction printer that can perform multiple tasks, such as printing, scanning, copying, and faxing.
In a SOHO (small office/home office) environment, a user who wants to make sensitive, scanned documents available to other users on the domain can set up an SMB share on the MFP device. This way, the user can scan the documents to the SMB share and grant access permissions to the other users who need to view or edit them. The SMB share can also enable logging, which can record who accessed the documents and at what time they were accessed .
The other options are not the best settings for this scenario. Scan to email is a feature that allows the user to scan a document and send it as an email attachment to a recipient. This option may not be secure or convenient for sharing sensitive documents with multiple users on the domain. ADF tray stands for automatic document feeder tray, which is a component of an MFP device that can feed multiple pages of a document into the scanner or copier without manual intervention. This option is not related to sharing or logging scanned documents. PCL stands for Printer Command Language, which is a page description language that controls the layout and printing of documents. This option is not related to sharing or logging scanned documents either.
NEW QUESTION # 235
A company wants to give third-party developers access to the corporate network through desktop environments that the company can control. Which of the following can BEST achieve these requirements?
- A. VDI
- B. Sandbox
- C. Saas
- D. Private cloud
Answer: A
Explanation:
VDI is a technology that allows a company to provide desktop environments to third-party developers while still maintaining control over the corporate network. VDI creates virtual desktops on a remote server, and each user gets their own desktop environment that is isolated from the other users. This allows the company to maintain control over the corporate network, as the virtual desktops are not directly connected to the corporate network.
NEW QUESTION # 236
A technician is troubleshooting a PC that makes grinding noises and eventually shuts down. The technician determines the PC is overheating. Which of the following is most likely failing?
- A. SSD
- B. RAM
- C. CPU fan
- D. Motherboard
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely component that is failing and causing the PC to overheat is D. CPU fan. The CPU fan is a vital part of the cooling system that prevents the CPU from overheating by blowing air over the heatsink and dissipating the heat. If the CPU fan is faulty, noisy, or clogged with dust, it can reduce the airflow and cause the CPU temperature to rise12. This can result in poor performance, instability, or shutdowns of the PC.
The other components are less likely to be the cause of overheating. RAM, motherboard, and SSD do not generate as much heat as the CPU and usually do not require fans to cool them down1. They may overheat if there is poor ventilation in the case or if they are defective, but they are not as common as a failing CPU fan.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. CPU fan. This is the most likely component that is failing and causing the PC to overheat.
NEW QUESTION # 237
A technician needs to recommend an internet connection for a customer who travels around the world and wants to have connectivity while visiting remote camping locations. Some of the locations the customer visits have limited or unreliable cellular service. Which of the following connection types should the technician recommend?
- A. Fiber
- B. DSL
- C. Hotspot
- D. Satellite
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 238
A user reports a monitor, keyboard, mouse. and headset are no longer functioning. The user has restarted the laptop and tested an alternative headset and monitor, but the issue persists. The technician notices the user has a printer. USB-C hub, and AC adapter plugged into the laptop. Which of the following should the technician do to MOST likely resolve the issue?
- A. Replace the user's USB-C hub.
- B. Make sure the printer is not drawing too much power.
- C. Verify the AC adaptor voltage.
- D. Reinstall the drivers for affected devices.
- E. Repair the operating system.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely cause of the issue is that the user's USB-C hub is faulty or incompatible with the laptop. The USB-C hub is a device that allows the user to connect multiple peripherals to the laptop using a single USB-C port. If the hub is not working properly, it may prevent the monitor, keyboard, mouse, and headset from functioning. The technician should replace the user's USB-C hub with a new one that is compatible with the laptop and test the peripherals again. Verifying the AC adapter voltage will not help with the issue, as the AC adapter is used to power the laptop, not the peripherals. Repairing the operating system will not help either, as the issue is not related to software. Reinstalling the drivers for affected devices may not help, as the issue may be caused by the hub, not the devices. Making sure the printer is not drawing too much power is irrelevant, as the printer is not connected to the hub or affecting the other peripherals. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-usb-c
NEW QUESTION # 239
A new employee has been issued a company laptop. The employee requests an accessory with a single power source that has wired network connectivity and supports a keyboard, mouse, speakers, and dual monitors. Which of the following accessories should the systems administrator deploy to BEST meet the new user's needs?
- A. Docking station with DisplayPort
- B. KVM switch with audio
- C. PoE switch
- D. USB-C hub with power delivery
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 240
A user is trying to play a DVD on a projector. The user can hear the audio; however, the projector is showing an error message that states:
HDMI Blocked due to Copy Protection
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?
- A. The user needs to switch from HDMI to a cable standard such as DisplayPort.
- B. The HDMI cannot carry the signal from the DVD to the projector.
- C. The user needs to enable cony-protected sources in the projector's settings.
- D. The projector does not support the necessary HDCP protocol.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2 Student Guide (Exams 220-1001 and 220-1002) | 193 Protected content. If you encounter an error that indicates unauthorized content or an HDCP error: * DVI, HDMI, DisplayPort, and Thunderbolt all provide support for the Digital Rights Management (DRM) mechanism High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection (HDCP). HDCP allows a content source (such as a Blu-ray disc) to disable itself if the display adapter and monitor and/or speaker system do not support HDCP and fail to authenticate themselves with the playback source. There have been various iterations of HDCP (at time of writing the current version is 2.2) and backward-compatibility can be problematic as authentication may fail between devices that support different versions of the standard.
NEW QUESTION # 241
Following a scheduled power outage, users report they cannot access the local intranet. A technician is able to ping the IP address of the server that is hosting the website. Which of the following serves is MOST likely offline?
- A. DHCP
- B. DNS
- C. Web
- D. File
Answer: B
Explanation:
DNS stands for Domain Name System and is a service that translates domain names (such as www.example.com) into IP addresses (such as 192.168.1.100) that computers can use to communicate over a network. If the DNS server is offline, users may not be able to access websites or other network resources by using their domain names, even if they are online and reachable by their IP addresses. The technician should check if the DNS server is running and configured correctly, or use an alternative DNS server if possible. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220-1101-study-guide (page 81)
NEW QUESTION # 242
A startup is looking to immediately expand its data center but does not have the personnel or space to manage everything internally. The organization has multiple small offices and remote users with large computational and storage-solution requirements. Funding is not an issue for the company. Which of the following can BEST accomplish the company's goals?
- A. laaS
- B. SON
- C. SaaS
- D. ISP
Answer: A
Explanation:
IaaS is a cloud computing model where a third-party provider hosts infrastructure components such as servers, storage, and networking on behalf of customers. This allows the startup to immediately expand its data center without the need for additional personnel or space to manage everything internally. Additionally, IaaS allows remote users to easily access the required computational and storage resources from multiple small offices.
Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) can provide the startup with the necessary computational and storage solutions without the need for internal management. laaS allows organizations to rent computing resources from a third-party provider instead of owning and maintaining them in-house.
NEW QUESTION # 243
A help desk technician has been tasked with installing an IP phone in a small office with an unmanaged switch. When connected to an RJ45 receptacle, the phone does not boot. Which of the following is the QUICKEST way to resolve this issue?
- A. Change ports on the switch.
- B. Upgrade the Ethernet cable to the latest specification.
- C. Replace the phone.
- D. Install a PoE injector.
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://intellinetnetwork.eu/pages/what-is-a-poe-injector
The quickest way to resolve the issue is to install a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector to provide power to the IP phone. An unmanaged switch does not provide PoE, so an injector is needed to power the phone.
NEW QUESTION # 244
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CompTIA 220-1101 certification exam is an essential certification for individuals looking to start a career in IT or advance their career in the IT industry. CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 certification exam validates the candidate’s skills and knowledge in areas such as hardware, networking, mobile devices, cloud computing, and troubleshooting. With the right preparation and study resources, candidates can pass the exam and demonstrate their expertise in the latest technologies and best practices.
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