MRCPUK : SEND Questions & Answers

Updated: Sep 24, 2026

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MRCPUK SEND Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Topic 1: Reproductive and Other Endocrine Conditions15%- Endocrine hypertension and rare syndromes
- Polycystic ovary syndrome
- Disorders of puberty and sex development
- Obesity and lipid disorders
Topic 2: Diabetes Mellitus40%- Type 2 Diabetes
  • 1. Oral and injectable non-insulin therapies
    • 2. Cardiovascular risk management
      • 3. Gestational diabetes
        • 4. Epidemiology and risk factors
          - Other forms of diabetes
          • 1. Pancreatic/endocrine-induced diabetes
            • 2. Monogenic diabetes
              - Type 1 Diabetes
              • 1. Acute complications: DKA, hypoglycaemia
                • 2. Long-term microvascular/macrovascular complications
                  • 3. Pathogenesis and natural history
                    • 4. Insulin therapy and delivery systems
                      Topic 3: Thyroid Disorders15%- Hypothyroidism and myxoedema coma
                      - Thyroiditis and subclinical dysfunction
                      - Hyperthyroidism: Graves’ disease, toxic nodular disease
                      - Thyroid nodules and cancer
                      Topic 4: Pituitary and Hypothalamic Disorders15%- Hypopituitarism and hormone replacement
                      - Diabetes insipidus and SIADH
                      - Hypothalamic dysfunction
                      - Pituitary adenomas: prolactinoma, acromegaly, Cushing's disease
                      Topic 5: Adrenal and Parathyroid/Metabolic Bone Disorders15%- Hyperparathyroidism, hypoparathyroidism
                      - Cushing's syndrome, Addison's disease, phaeochromocytoma
                      - Primary/secondary hyperaldosteronism
                      - Osteoporosis, osteomalacia, Paget's disease

                      MRCPUK Endocrinology and Diabetes (Specialty Certificate Examination) Sample Questions:

                      Question #1

                      A 27-year-old woman presented with oligomenorrhoea and hirsutism, and a 2-year history of infertility. Her body mass index was 26 kg/m2 (18-25). Her partner had a recent normal sperm count and motility test.
                      Investigations:
                      serum androstenedione17.0 nmol/L (0.6-8.8)
                      serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone2 nmol/L (1-10)
                      serum testosterone2.8 nmol/L (0.5-3.0)
                      serum sex hormone binding globulin18 nmol/L (40-137)
                      serum follicle-stimulating hormone2.3 U/L (2.5-10.0)
                      serum luteinising hormone8.3 U/L (2.5-10.0)
                      serum prolactin152 mU/L (<360)
                      A diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome was made.
                      What is the most effective next step to help her conceive?

                      • A. metformin
                      • B. orlistat
                      • C. diet and exercise
                      • D. clomifene
                      • E. in vitro fertilisation
                      Reveal Solution  Discussion  0

                      Correct Answer: D  🗳️

                      Question #2

                      A 28-year-old man was seen in the lipid clinic following a referral from the general surgical team. He had had two episodes of acute pancreatitis over the preceding 6 months, which settled spontaneously. He had a past medical history of HIV disease and was taking highly active antiretroviral (HAART) therapy. He drank 12 units of alcohol per week.
                      On examination, he had no stigmata of hyperlipidaemia.
                      Investigations:
                      fasting plasma glucose6.2 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
                      haemoglobin A1c44 mmol/mol (20-42)
                      serum cholesterol7.5 mmol/L (<5.2)
                      fasting serum triglycerides23.70 mmol/L (0.45-1.69)
                      serum thyroid-stimulating hormone0.7 mU/L (0.4-5.0)
                      serum free T414.3 pmol/L (10.0-22.0)
                      What class of antiretroviral drug is the most likely cause of his metabolic disturbance?

                      • A. non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (e.g. nevirapine)
                      • B. protease inhibitors (e.g. ritonavir)
                      • C. integrase inhibitors (e.g. raltegravir)
                      • D. entry inhibitors (e.g. enfuvirtide)
                      • E. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (e.g. zidovudine)
                      Reveal Solution  Discussion  0

                      Correct Answer: B  🗳️

                      Question #3

                      A 45-year-old woman was found to be hypertensive by her general practitioner. She was otherwise well and was not taking any medication. However, she regularly ate health food containing liquorice. There was no family history of significant illness.
                      On examination, her blood pressure was 170/110 mmHg.
                      Investigations:
                      serum sodium140 mmol/L (137-144)
                      serum potassium3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
                      serum creatinine70 umol/L (60-110)
                      plasma renin activity (after 30 min supine)0.5 pmol/mL/h (1.1-2.7)
                      plasma aldosterone (after 30 min supine)450 pmol/L (135-400)
                      During the investigations, her blood pressure was controlled with doxazosin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

                      • A. primary hyperaldosteronism
                      • B. renal artery stenosis
                      • C. pseudohyperaldosteronism
                      • D. Gitelman's syndrome
                      • E. apparent mineralocorticoid excess
                      Reveal Solution  Discussion  0

                      Correct Answer: A  🗳️

                      Question #4

                      A 34-year-old woman presented with palpitations, heat intolerance and a slight tremor. She was 9 weeks into her first pregnancy. She had not had any morning sickness.
                      On examination, her pulse was 100 beats per minute. She had a small uniform goitre but no tremor and no eye signs.
                      Investigations:
                      serum thyroid-stimulating hormone<0.01 mU/L (0.4-5.0)
                      serum free T442.0 pmol/L (10.0-22.0)
                      serum free T315.0 pmol/L (3.0-7.0)
                      anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor
                      antibodies14 U/L (<7)
                      The decision was taken to treat her Graves' disease with propylthiouracil (PTU) rather than carbimazole.
                      What is the reason for this decision?

                      • A. PTU is less associated with hepatitis
                      • B. concordance with PTU is greater
                      • C. PTU does not cross the placenta
                      • D. PTU is less associated with aplasia cutis
                      • E. PTU is less associated with agranulocytosis
                      Reveal Solution  Discussion  0

                      Correct Answer: D  🗳️

                      Question #5

                      A 34-year-old woman with a 21-year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus had started treatment with subcutaneous insulin pump therapy 18 months previously. Her haemoglobin A1c before starting pump therapy was 77 mmol/mol (20-42) and she had experienced severe hypoglycaemic events without warning symptoms over the previous 4 years.
                      At review in clinic, she reported continuing episodes of severe hypoglycaemia without warning symptoms despite regular monitoring and advice from her insulin pump nurse specialist.
                      On examination, her blood pressure was 134/80 mmHg and fundoscopy revealed moderate background diabetic retinopathy. Examination of the feet revealed strong, palpable pedal pulses and early evidence of sensory neuropathy.
                      Investigations:
                      estimated glomerular filtration rate (MDRD)24 mL/min/1.73 m2 (>60)
                      haemoglobin A1c56 mmol/mol (20-42)
                      24-h urinary total protein2.3 g (<0.2)
                      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

                      • A. refer for continuous glucose monitoring
                      • B. refer for allogeneic pancreas transplantation
                      • C. refer for allogeneic pancreatic islet cell transplantation
                      • D. refer for combined pancreas and kidney transplantation
                      • E. change to intensified subcutaneous insulin injections
                      Reveal Solution  Discussion  0

                      Correct Answer: D  🗳️

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